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Author Topic: Calvin and Calvinism  (Read 53996 times)
vernecarty
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« Reply #60 on: December 06, 2003, 08:58:39 pm »

On lighter note, does anyone else on this thread enjoy palindromes?
Here is the first one ever recorded on the occasion of Eve's introduction to her husband:

MADAM, ADAM... Grin
Verne
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d3z
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« Reply #61 on: December 06, 2003, 09:41:44 pm »

I though he said:

MADAM, I'M ADAM
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al Hartman
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« Reply #62 on: December 06, 2003, 11:59:29 pm »



On lighter note, does anyone else on this thread enjoy palindromes?
Here is the first one ever recorded on the occasion of Eve's introduction to her husband:

MADAM, ADAM... Grin
Verne

     We named our daughter HANNAH so she would be the first kid in her class that could spell her name backwards.  So she ended up in the same room with OTTO, ADA, BOB & LIL !!!

 ;)al

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vernecarty
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« Reply #63 on: December 07, 2003, 02:00:33 am »

I thought he said:

MADAM, I'M ADAM

Actually David, he said that after the orginal introduction...of course, following God's lead... Grin
Verne
p.s. you stole my thunder...I was going to ask how Adam's response showed he was made in God's image!  Smiley
« Last Edit: December 07, 2003, 02:24:59 am by vernecarty » Logged
Oscar
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« Reply #64 on: December 08, 2003, 02:49:54 pm »

I am not extremely interested in discussing the second point of Arminianism (2. CONDITIONAL ELECTION), so I will just give a link to an article called "SCRIPTURAL PROOF FOR UNCONDITIONAL ELECTION":
 http://www.mbrem.com/calvinism/elect4.htm

I am mainly interested in discussing the third point of Arminianism (3. UNIVERSAL ATONEMENT), but I don't have time right now, so it will have to wait. More later.

H

H,

I looked at the article.  The entire argument hangs on greek word definitions.  Here, again, we have someone claiming to know how God thinks.  Even though the Bible says we don't.  

Thomas Maddux, V. D. with oak leaf clusters.
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Oscar
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« Reply #65 on: December 08, 2003, 03:14:35 pm »

To get someone started...


2.CONDITIONAL ELECTION
"Arminius believed that election was based on the foreknowledge of God as to who would believe. Man's "act of faith" was seen as the "condition" or his being elected to eternal life, since God foresaw him exercising his "free will" in response to Jesus Christ."

There is a very cogent response to this that I have never had  even the ablest Arminian answer convincingly - viz. that for the elect, Christ paid the debt for all their sin, including the sin of unbelief, which alone sends men to hell. Is the atonement considered universally applicable to all men, efficacious to overcome unbelief in some, yet not in others? One must limit the atonement either in its quality, or in its quantity...which would you choose??!!
Verne


Verne,

Here is a place where Calvinists have some uphill work to do, and don't do it very well.

Scripture abounds with verses that teach unlimited atonement. John 3:16.  I John 2:2.  I Peter 3:18.  Romans 5:6.  Romans 11:15.  2 Cor. 5:19.  

The standard Calvinist answer is to go to work to show that "all" means "some", "the world" means "part of the world" and so forth.

Actually, this problem should act as a red flag that Calvinism, being a system of theology invented by men, has not yet acheived its goal of explaining all revelation.

You have proposed a false dilemma.  It is not either quantity or quality alone....you forgot applicability.

Thomas Maddux V. D. with silver oak leaf cluster.
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vernecarty
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« Reply #66 on: December 08, 2003, 06:49:43 pm »

To get someone started...


2.CONDITIONAL ELECTION
"Arminius believed that election was based on the foreknowledge of God as to who would believe. Man's "act of faith" was seen as the "condition" or his being elected to eternal life, since God foresaw him exercising his "free will" in response to Jesus Christ."

There is a very cogent response to this that I have never had  even the ablest Arminian answer convincingly - viz. that for the elect, Christ paid the debt for all their sin, including the sin of unbelief, which alone sends men to hell. Is the atonement considered universally applicable to all men, efficacious to overcome unbelief in some, yet not in others? One must limit the atonement either in its quality, or in its quantity...which would you choose??!!
Verne


Verne,

Here is a place where Calvinists have some uphill work to do, and don't do it very well.

Scripture abounds with verses that teach unlimited atonement. John 3:16.  I John 2:2.  I Peter 3:18.  Romans 5:6.  Romans 11:15.  2 Cor. 5:19.  

The standard Calvinist answer is to go to work to show that "all" means "some", "the world" means "part of the world" and so forth.

Actually, this problem should act as a red flag that Calvinism, being a system of theology invented by men, has not yet acheived its goal of explaining all revelation.

You have proposed a false dilemma.  It is not either quantity or quality alone....you forgot applicability.

Thomas Maddux V. D. with silver oak leaf cluster.

Interesting observation Tom. If I could show one verse in the Bible where an apparent universal descriptor does not warrant a literal interpretation, would you accept that the exception proves the rule?
I think this is one of those cases where the admonition line upon line, precept upon precept weighs very heavily. We are cautioned to not let any Scripture be of isolated interpretation and that we should compare Scripture with Scripture.
This is starting to bring us to the heart of this debate I think and that is whether or not the Sovereign will of God can ultimately be thwarted....
You must be prepared ultimately to argue that if it is God's sovereign will that literally all men be saved, the divine purpose in the sacrifce of His son on the cross will ultimtely be eternally thwarted. I would threfore ask you and all who espouse that the Word of God teaches an unlimited attonement - do  you believe that ultimatley any  single purpose of the Creator can be thwarted? ...we now really starting to get serious....


Quote
Scripture abounds with verses that teach unlimited atonement. John 3:16.  I John 2:2.  I Peter 3:18.  Romans 5:6.  Romans 11:15.  2 Cor. 5:19.  

The standard Calvinist answer is to go to work to show that "all" means "some", "the world" means "part of the world" and so forth.


This, in my view, is the fundamental and in my view irreconcilable difference bwtween both camps-

Does God, or does God not always accomplish His purpose??!!!.


If your interpretation of these verses is that it was God's purpose that the death of Christ provide atonement for the sin of every person who ever lived, then you are arguing that ultimately God's pupose in the death of Christ will ever be, for time and eternity frustrated. You may indeed make that argument, but we do need, I think, to be clear about where the argument leads, namely, to a denial of the omnipotence of Jehovah...

Quote

You have proposed a false dilemma.  It is not either quantity or quality alone....you forgot applicability.

The dilemma is in no way false if you subscribe to the teaching that salvation is by grace through faith alone!.
 Are you prepared to argue that there are some the Father draws who do not come to Christ?

Can anyone come to Christ who has not been drawn by the Father?

If you respod to either query in the affirmative, that calls for separate treatment.
If you respond to both quries in the negative, then it is evident that those that do not come to Christ have not indeed been drawn by the Father.

If they have not been drawn by the Father, then why not? Did not God shed the precious blood of His only begotten Son on their behalf (according to Universalism) and would threfore be quite remiss in not drawing them, knowing full well they will not come to Christ otherwise?

You are unquestionably shut up to limiting quality or quantity. What you refer to as applicability is nothing more than a possible subset of those two broad categories in my humble opinion.
Verne
« Last Edit: December 08, 2003, 10:31:38 pm by vernecarty » Logged
vernecarty
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« Reply #67 on: December 08, 2003, 09:53:08 pm »

  For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
JOhn 3:16


Does John 3:16 teach universalism or an unlimited atonement?
That conclusion cannot be drawn from the portion of the verse that says "whosoever believes". There is absolutely no logical or linguistic warrant for assuming this means 'everyone can believe", or "everyone will believe". The "whosoever" is inherently discriminatory and qualifies the condition of having eternal life.
The appeal to a universal atonement is therefore drawn from the verse's use of the word "world".  Kosmos is variously rendered in the new testament and is generally accepted to refer to "mankind" in John 3:16, delimiting the sphere, of the display of God's love but not necessarily implying  Universalism. For example, we know there will be no redemption for fallen angels. God's redemptive love clearly does not extend to them.
This idea further goes against the teaching of Scripture in other places that God loves discriminately eg. Jacob and Esau.  If this indeed can be accepted, the warrant for invoking this verse to support an unlimited scope for the atonement is demolished.

Compare for example Scripture's use of the word in 1 John 5:19

 And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness.

The argument used to assert Universalism in John 3:16, should logically be used to assert universal condemnation here but we do not. Why? Because it clearly goes against the teaching of God's Word elsewhere.
I would apply the same argument to the use of Kosmos in I John 2:2


  For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God...
1 Peter 3:18

I am not sure why anyone would think this verse suggests unlimited atonement. If only two sinners were saved this verse would be true.

 For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
Romans 5:6


Again, absolutely nothing about unlimited atonement here Tom


For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead?

Romans 11:15


Again,  Kosmos



To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
2 Cor. 5:19

Same word
Verne

p.s. A weaker, but plausible argument points out that all of creation was affected by sin- both of men and angels, and that all of creation will be freed from its consequences as a result of Christ's sacrifice. The only place where sin will remain is in Hell, a place prepared for the Devil and his angels...
« Last Edit: January 09, 2004, 04:45:05 pm by vernecarty » Logged
H
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« Reply #68 on: December 09, 2003, 03:32:32 am »

Due to my wife's illness (and other reasons), I have not had time to write as I had hoped. But then Verne is doing such a great job on this thread that there doesn't seem to be much need for my input at the moment anyway. However, I thought I would re-post what I wrote about the word "world" back in January:

The word in the Greek is "kosmos", and if you look it up in "A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature" by W.F.Arndt and F.W.Gingrich, translated from Walter Bauer, you will discover that "kosmos" has at least 8 meanings, depending on the context. As a matter of fact, only rarely does it mean "the entire human race." If you don't believe me, go look it up yourself. Even in those places where “kosmos” refers to mankind, it doesn’t always refer to the entire human race. Let me just give you 2 examples. In 2 Pet. 2:5, “world” refers exclusively to unbelievers (“And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth [person], a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;”). God spared Noah and his family, so they are obviously not included in the “old world” and “the world of the ungodly”. In contrast, “world” in John 12 :19 refers exclusively to people who were “going after him (Jesus)” (“The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.”). There is absolutely no way that you can make “world” in this verse refer to the entire human race. It refers to a large, indefinite group of people who shared a common characteristic, namely “going after Jesus.” I believe that the same concept applies in John 3:16 and I John 2:2. In John 3:16, I believe “world” refers to “whosever believeth” (i.e., all true believers, all the elect, not just Jewish believers), and in I John 2:2, I believe “world” refers to all true believers among the Gentiles (the “our” refers to Jewish believers, as Pink explains in the material in my previous post; ...).

H
 
« Last Edit: December 09, 2003, 03:44:37 pm by H » Logged
vernecarty
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« Reply #69 on: December 09, 2003, 05:24:15 am »

I agree with H on the variant uses of "world". It clearly does not always, taken contextually or etymologically, refer to  every human being, even when the reference is to "mankind". To build a doctrine of unlimited atonement based soley on those verses is not an unassailable theological position in my view...
Verne
« Last Edit: December 09, 2003, 05:51:50 am by vernecarty » Logged
Oscar
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« Reply #70 on: December 10, 2003, 02:52:31 am »

Verne and H,

I am really pressed for time right now.  When I can I will send you some quotes from Calvin himself that demostrate why he rejected limited atonement.

Until then.

Tom
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vernecarty
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« Reply #71 on: December 10, 2003, 03:35:47 am »

Verne and H,

I am really pressed for time right now.  When I can I will send you some quotes from Calvin himself that demostrate why he rejected limited atonement.

Until then.

Tom

I must confess I would be surprised and instructed Tom. It has been a while since I looked at his Institutes but I'll try to do a little reading there in the meantime so I can sound half-way intelligent when you post. See ya soon...
Verne

« Last Edit: January 09, 2004, 04:39:29 pm by vernecarty » Logged
H
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« Reply #72 on: December 11, 2003, 05:53:36 pm »

Verne and H,

I am really pressed for time right now.  When I can I will send you some quotes from Calvin himself that demostrate why he rejected limited atonement.

Until then.

Tom

While it certainly will be interesting to see you quote Calvin to support your position, Tom, it will not affect my views, since they are based on what the Bible teaches, not on what Calvin taught.

H
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Joe Sperling
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« Reply #73 on: December 14, 2003, 03:06:12 am »

I am thinking of starting a new thread which combines the teachings of John Calvin with the writings of the author Thomas Hobbes, author of "Leviathan", and contrasts them. It will be called "Calvin and Hobbes"---let me know what you think.

----Joe
« Last Edit: December 14, 2003, 03:08:20 am by Joe Sperling » Logged
vernecarty
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« Reply #74 on: December 14, 2003, 05:44:36 am »

I am thinking of starting a new thread which combines the teachings of John Calvin with the writings of the author Thomas Hobbes, author of "Leviathan", and contrasts them. It will be called "Calvin and Hobbes"---let me know what you think.

----Joe

Er...I do believe I already have the comlete works Joe...my seven-year old also enjoys this erudite material...
Verne
« Last Edit: December 14, 2003, 05:45:16 am by vernecarty » Logged
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